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Exam Code: C_TBW55_73
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - Modeling and Data Management with SAP BW 7.3 AND SAP BI 4.0
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C_TBW55_73 practice engine for pc Total Q&A: 112 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 12-11,2016

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Exam Code: C_THR12_67
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP HCM with ERP 6.0 EHP7
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C_THR12_67 Sheets Total Q&A: 245 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 What does SAP recommend you do to improve the overall reporting performance of a standard InfoCube in SAP BW? There are 3 correct answers to this question. Choose:
A. Create one or more line-item dimensions.
B. Execute a pre-load OLAP cache process in a process chain.
C. Include the InfoCube into a semantically partitioned object (SPO).
D. Create aggregates.
E. Split the standard InfoCube data into several InfoCubes contained in a MultiProvider
Answer: A,C,D

NO.2 Which assignment can you make in the User Security section of a report object? There are 2 correct answers to this question. Choose:
A. Folder-level security for the object
B. Group-level access and rights to the object
C. Rights to an access level
D. User-level access and rights to the object
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 Which InfoProvider allows you to access data in an SAP ERP system directly? Please choose the correct answer. Choose one:
A. TransientProvider
B. Basic InfoCube
C. BW InfoSet
D. Semantic Partitioned Object
Answer: A

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NO.4 You want to show attribute data for a characteristic that is valid on the 1st of the current month. How do you model this?
Please choose the correct answer. Choose one:
A. Model the master data by adding it as a characteristic in the dimension.
B. Model the master data as a time-dependent navigation attribute of the characteristic.
C. Model the calendar day in the time dimension.
D. Model the master data by adding a time-dependent navigation attribute.
Answer: B

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NO.1 You need to create a basic organizational structure for testing purposes. Which interfaces would allow you to create one quickly while displaying it graphically? (Choose two)
A. PP01 (General - Maintain Object)
B. PPSC (Create General Structure)
C. PO10 (Maintain Organizational Unit)
D. PPOM_OLD (Simple Maintenance)
E. PPME (Change Matrix Organization)
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 A customer wants to improve data accuracy by assigning values in Organizational Management (OM) that default into Personnel Administration (PA). Which of the following values can be imported from OM into PA? (Choose three)
A. Cost Center on IT0001 (Organizational Assignment)
B. Planned Compensation on IT0008 (Basic Pay)
C. Work Schedule Rule on IT0007 (Planned Working Time)
D. Weekly Working Hours on IT0007 (Planned Working Time)
E. Employee Subgroup on IT0001 (Organizational Assignment)
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.3 Which of the following functions of the Employee Subgroup Grouping for Personnel Calculation Rules?
A. Determines permissible time quota types
B. Determines the valid pay scale group and level
C. Determines the correct processing steps in payroll
D. Determines permissible wage types
Answer: C

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NO.4 A US company wants specific field characteristics (optional, required, hidden) to be different for some areas of the organization. How can you achieve this? Please choose the correct answer.
Response:
A. Configure multiple header definition settings for use on the Header Structure per Infotype table.
B. Maintain the ADDRS feature to determine screen control for foreign addresses.
C. Set up an Infotype menu for fast data entry.
D. Adjust the screen modifications in the Infotype Screen Control table.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 1D0-635
Exam Name: CIW JavaScript Specialist
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NO.1 Which statement is true about the getElementByID() method?
A. If a match is not found for the specified ID, it will attempt searching by name.
B. It returns an array containing all elements with the specified ID.
C. It returns only the first element with the specified ID.
D. If a match is not found for the specified ID, it will attempt searching by tag name.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following is a valid variable name in JavaScript?
A. 2that
B. this
C. 2this
D. that
Answer: D

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NO.3 Consider only the following code: Which of the following would properly supply the sum of the two numbers?
A. return sum;
B. return sum(num1+num2);
C. mySum (num1+num2);
D. return num1+num2;
Answer: D

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NO.4 Consider the following statement:
for (X; Y; Z) What does Z represent in this code?
A. The loop counter update expression
B. The condition under which the loop will execute
C. The counter variable
D. The highest value that the counter variable may reach
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C_TAW12_740
Exam Name: SAP Certified Development Associate- ABAP with SAP NetWeaver 7.40
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Exam Code: C_TAW12_740
Exam Name: SAP Certified Development Associate- ABAP with SAP NetWeaver 7.40
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NO.1 You can use the following production planning (PP) application components for production supply in EWM
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question
Response:
A. Process order (PP-PI_POR)
B. Production order (PP-SFC)
C. Material Management (MM)
D. Logistics (LO)
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 The document header information is defined in the EWM system by a combination of what two codes? There are 2 correct answers to this question.
Response:
A. Document category
B. Schedule line category
C. Status profile
D. Item category
E. Document type
Answer: A,E

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NO.3 In delivery processing, action profiles can be assigned to which of the following? There are 2 correct answers to this question.
Response:
A. Delivery document item
B. Warehouse task
C. Delivery document header
D. Warehouse order
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 What are the two forms of counting?
Choose the correct answer(s).
Response:
A. Implicit and Explicit
B. Cycle counting and continuous
C. Internal and external
D. Direct and Indirect
Answer: A

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NO.1 What happens when an authorization check fails?
A. A type E message is displayed.
B. The program is terminated.
C. The system field SY-SUBRC is set to a value other than zero.
D. A CX_AUTH_FAILED type exception is raised.
Answer: C

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NO.2 To which of the following must you assign newly created SAP repository objects?
A. Package
B. Function group
C. Transport task
D. Transport request
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which statement ends a screen sequence and starts from the initial screen?
A. SET SCREEN 0
B. LEAVE SCREEN
C. LEAVE TO SCREEN 0
D. CALL SCREEN
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 You want to translate text in a Web Dynpro. From which should you inherit?
A. CL WD CONTEXT SERVICES
B. CL_WD_COMPONENT_ASSISTANCE
C. CL_WD_COMPONENT_SERVICES
D. CL_WD_CONFIGURATION_MODEL
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 300-320
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures
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Exam Code: 200-105
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
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200-105 Certification Total Q&A: 205 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 12-11,2016

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300-320 practice
NO.1 Which technology is an example of the need for a designer to clearly define features and desired performance when designing advanced WAN services with a service provider?
A. FHRP to remote branches
B. Layer 3 MPLS VPNs secure routing
C. Control protocols (for example Spanning Tree Protocol) for a Layer 3 MPLS service
D. Intrusion prevention, QoS, and stateful firewall support network wide
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which option is an advanced WAN services design consideration for a multipoint architecture that connects two or more customer devices using Ethernet bridging techniques over an MPLS network?
A. SONET/SDH
B. VPLS
C. MPLS
D. Metro Ethernet
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which technology can block interfaces and provide a loop-free topology?
A. STP
B. VSS
C. vPC
D. VLAN
Answer: C

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NO.4 What are two of Cisco's best practices at the access layer to ensure rapid link transitions and VLAN consistency? (Choose two.)
A. Utilize VTP in transparent mode
B. Portfast applied on distribution uplinks
C. Utilize VTP in server/client mode
D. Deploy MSTP
E. Deploy RPVST
F. VLANs span entire network
Answer: A,E

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200-105 result
NO.1 Refer to the exhibit.
Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?
A. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
B. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.
C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D. It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_tech_note09186a008009482f.shtml When a switch receives a BPDU, it first compares priority, the lower number wins. If a tie, compare MAC, the smaller one wins. Here Switch has 32769 priority which is greater than 20481 so switch will not elect for root bridge. It says the bridge priority for Switch is 32769, and the root priority is 20481.
Which means that some other switch has the lower priority and won the election for VLAN 1.

NO.2 In GLBP, which router will respond to client ARP requests?
A. The active virtual gateway will reply with one of four possible virtual MAC addresses.
B. All GLBP member routers will reply in round-robin fashion.
C. The active virtual gateway will reply with its own hardware MAC address.
D. The GLBP member routers will reply with one of four possible burned in hardware addresses.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
GLBP Virtual MAC Address Assignment A GLBP group allows up to four virtual MAC addresses per group.The AVG is responsible for assigning the virtual MAC addresses to each member of the group. Other group members request a virtual MAC address after they discover the AVG through hello messages. Gateways are assigned the next MAC address in sequence. A virtual forwarder that is assigned a virtual MAC address by the AVG is known as a primary virtual forwarder.Other members of the GLBP group learn the virtual MAC addresses from hello messages.
A virtual forwarder that has learned the virtual MAC address is referred to as a secondary virtual forwarder.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_2t/12_2t15/feature/guide/ft_glbp.html

NO.3 Refer to the exhibit.
How will the router handle a packet destined for 192.0.2.156?
A. The router will forward the packet via either Serial0 or Serial1.
B. The router will return the packet to its source.
C. The router will forward the packet via Serial2.
D. The router will drop the packet.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Router has pointed default router to 192.168.4.1 and this subnet is connected via serial 2 interface. Router does not have router for the 192.0.2.156. so it will use the default gateway 192.168.4.1. A default route identifies the gateway IP address to which the router sends all IP packets for which it does not have a learned or static route.

NO.4 Refer to the exhibit.A network associate has configured OSPF with the command:City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF. Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? (Choose three.)
A. Serial0/1.104
B. Serial0/1.103
C. FastEthernet0 /1
D. FastEthernet0 /0
E. Serial0/0
F. Serial0/1.102
Answer: C,E,F

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Explanation:
The "network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 equals to network 192.168.12.64/26. This network has:Increment: 64 (/26= 1111 1111.1111 1111.1111 1111.1100 0000)Network address:
192.168.12.64 Broadcast address: 192.168.12.127Therefore all interface in the range of this network will join OSPF - B C D are correct.

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Exam Code: CEH-001
Exam Name: Certified Ethical Hacker (CEH)
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Last Update: 12-11,2016

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NO.1 Which type of antenna is used in wireless communication?
A. Uni-directional
B. Bi-directional
C. Omnidirectional
D. Parabolic
Answer: C

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NO.2 Keystroke logging is the action of tracking (or logging) the keys struck on a keyboard, typicall in a covert manner so that the person using the keyboard is unaware that their actions are being monitored. How will you defend against hardware keyloggers when using public computers and Internet Kiosks? (Select 4 answers)
A. Alternate between typing the login credentials and typing characters somewhere else in the focus window
B. The next key typed replaces selected text portion. g. if the password is "secret", one could type "s", then some dummy keys "asdfsd". Then these dummies could be selected with mouse, and next character from the password "e" is typed, which replaces the dummies "asdfsd"
C. The next key typed replaces selected text portion. E.g. if the password is "secret", one could type "s", then some dummy keys "asdfsd". Then these dummies could be selected with mouse, and next character from the password "e" is typed, which replaces the dummies "asdfsd"
D. Type a wrong password first, later type the correct password on the login page defeating the keylogger recording
E. Type a password beginning with the last letter and then using the mouse to move the cursor for each subsequent letter.
Answer: A,B,C,E

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NO.3 Information gathered from social networking websites such as Facebook, Twitter and LinkedIn can be used to launch which of the following types of attacks? (Choose two.)
A. Fraggle attack
B. SQL injection attack
C. Social engineering attack
D. Distributed denial of service attack
E. Phishing attack
F. Smurf attack
Answer: C,E

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NO.4 Rebecca is a security analyst and knows of a local root exploit that has the ability to enable local users to use available exploits to gain root privileges. This vulnerability exploits a condition in the Linux kernel within the execve() system call. There is no known workaround that exists for this vulnerability. What is the correct action to be taken by Rebecca in this situation as a recommendation to management?
A. Rebecca should make a recommendation to upgrade the Linux kernel promptly
B. Rebecca should make a recommendation to hire more system administrators to monitor all child
processes to ensure that each child process can't elevate privilege
C. Rebecca should make a recommendation to disable the () system call
D. Rebecca should make a recommendation to set all child-process to sleep within the execve()
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 1z0-329
Exam Name: Oracle Global Human Resources Cloud 2016 Implementation Essentials
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Exam Name: Oracle Database 12c SQL
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NO.1 You are implementing the Checklist functionality for one of your customers. The customer wants the checklist template to be allocated to persons automatically. What should you do to achieve the required functionality?
A. Associate a life event with the checklist template to allocate the checklist to persons automatically when they experience the event.
B. Associate the area of responsibility with the checklist template to allocate the checklist to persons automatically when they are given the specific area of responsibility.
C. Managers can automatically allocate checklist templates to the persons whom they manage from Person Gallery
D. Associate the action with the checklist template to allocate the checklist to persons automatically when they experience the action.
E. Associate the eligibility profile with the checklist template to allocate the checklist to persons automatically when they satisfy the criteria built in the eligibility profile.
Answer: D

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NO.2 An organization wants to include a security profile in an HCM data role and then provision the data role to a user. Identify the option which lists the HCM object types for which the security profiles can be created.
A. Person, Organization, Position, Legislative Data Group, Country, Document Type. Payroll, Payroll Flow, Workforce Business Process
B. Person, Organization, Position, Legislative Data Group, Location, Grade, Document Type, Payroll, Payroll Flow, Workforce Business Process
C. Person, Organization, Position. Legislative Data Group, Country, Grade, Document Type. Payroll, Payroll Flow, Workforce Business Process
D. Person, Organization, Position. Legislative Data Group, Location. Grade. Document Type, Payroll. Payroll Flow
Answer: A

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NO.3 As an implementation consultant, you are in the process of building the Enterprise Structure. At the minimum, what are the three options you should be aware of while defining a Business Unit in the application? (Choose three.)
A. A Business Unit performs one or many business functions that can be rolled up in a management hierarchy.
B. A Business unit can process transactions on behalf of many legal entities.
C. A Business unit can process transactions on behalf of many or a single legal entity depending on how the ESC option is set.
D. A Business Unit performs one or many business functions like Payables invoicing, Payables payments, Procurement, Sales, Marketing etc.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.4 Select three correct Workforce Structure definitions. (Choose three.)
A. Department
B. Division
C. Country
D. Location
E. Facility
F. Geography
Answer: A,B,D

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1z0-071 Test 

NO.1 Examine the following query:What is the output of this query?
A. It displays the first 5 percent of the rows from the SALES table.
B. It displays 5 percent of the products with the highest amount sold.
C. It displays 5 percent of the products with the lowest amount sold.
D. It results in an error because the ORDER BY clause should be the last clause.
Answer: C

NO.2 Evaluate the following SQL statements that are issued in the given order: CREATE TABLE emp (emp_no NUMBER(2) CONSTRAINT emp_emp_no_pk PRIMARY KEY, enameVARCHAR2(15), salary NUMBER(8,2),
mgr_no NUMBER(2) CONSTRAINT emp_mgr_fk REFERENCES emp);
ALTER TABLE emp DISABLE CONSTRAINT emp_emp_no_pk CASCADE;
ALTER TABLE emp ENABLE CONSTRAINT emp_emp_no_pk; What would be the status of the foreign key EMP_MGR_FK?
A. It would be automatically enabled and deferred.
B. It would be automatically enabled and immediate.
C. It would remain disabled and can be enabled only by dropping the foreign key constraint and re-creating it.
D. It would remain disabled and has to be enabled manually using the ALTER TABLE command.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 View the Exhibit and examine the structure of ORDERS and ORDER_ITEMS tables. ORDER__ID is the primary key in the ORDERS table. It is also the foreign key in the ORDER_ITEMS table wherein it is created with the ON DELETE CASCADE option.Which DELETE statement would execute successfully?
A. DELETE order_id FROM orders WHERE order_total < 1000;
B. DELETE orders o, order_items i WHERE o.order id = i.order id;
C. DELETE orders WHERE order_total < 1000;
D. DELETE FROM orders WHERE (SELECT order_id FROM order_items);
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which two statements are true regarding constraints? (Choose two.)
A. All the constraints can be defined at the column level as well as the table level
B. A foreign key cannot contain NULL values.
C. A constraint is enforced only for the INSERT operation on a table.
D. A constraint can be disabled even if the constraint column contains data.
E. A column with the UNIQUE constraint can contain NULL.
Answer: D,E

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Exam Code: C5050-062
Exam Name: Rational UrbanCode Deploy
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C5050-062 relevant questions Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 12-11,2016

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Exam Code: P2090-070
Exam Name: IBM Information Management Optim z/OS Technical Mastery v1
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P2090-070 Review Total Q&A: 40 Questions and AnswersLast Update: 12-11,2016

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NO.1 When integrating with WebLogic (WLDeploy plugin), one required field is the location of the "WLDeploy Ant Task Jar." Where can you obtain this important file that is required for integration?
A. You can download it from the WebLogic interface.
B. You can find it in the WebLogic's server directory.
C. You can build the jar file manually in the WebLogic's server/lib directory.
D. You can download it from http://oracle.com.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Basic Steps for Using wldeploy
To use the wldeploy Ant task:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E13222_01/wls/docs92/programming/wldeploy.html

NO.2 The approval process is executed when approved by which user type?
A. The user type configured for approval in the approval process being executed
B. The user type currently configured to execute the process
C. The user type of the user created both the application processes and the component processes
D. The administrator user type
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Deployment approvals are created in a process that specifies the job that needs approval and the role of the approver. When a request for approval is made, the users with the corresponding role are
notified of the work item through email. The approver has the liberty to approve or reject a deployment as well as provide comments to the decision.
References:
https://developer.ibm.com/urbancode/products/urbancode-deploy/features/quality-gates-approvals/

NO.3 What is the result of deleting an agent from the IBM UrbanCode Deploy server administration console?
A. The agent is removed from the list of available agents and deleted from the file system.
B. The agent is removed from the list of available agents but remains on the resource tree for reuse.
C. The agent is removed from the list of available agents and deleted from the resource tree.
D. The agent is removed from the resource but remains on the list of available agents for reuse.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
If you uninstall an agent from its host, you will not be able to reinstall the agent using the same name. To properly uninstall an agent, you must also delete it from the server as follows:
Click on Resources > Agents Click the Delete action for the agent you previously uninstalled
References: http://www-01.ibm.com/support/docview.wss?uid=swg21687857

NO.4 Which three statements are true about version statuses? (Select three.)
A. Version statuses must be used in conjunction with locks to identify which environments are locked for marked versions.
B. Version statuses must be used in conjunction with environment gates to govern which versions are allowed into specific environments.
C. Version statuses must be used in conjunction with tokens to mark which versions are ready for deployment.
D. Version statuses must be used in conjunction with component tags to tag which versions can be deployed.
Answer: A,B,D

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Explanation:
B: In IBM UrbanCode Deploy, Environment Gates and Version Statuses can help you define policies restricting which versions of components and applications may be deployed into certain
environments. For example, you would use Gates and Statuses to enforce a rule that anything being deployed into
Production has passed security reviews. Unlike approvals which act on a specific request, Gates establish checks on the versions of components or applications being deployed.
C: Environments can be configured to specifically lock either snapshot versions or snapshot configuration, or both, when snapshots are deployed to the environment. In addition, users can now manually lock snapshots so that they cannot be changed in the future
References:
https://developer.ibm.com/urbancode/docs/introduction-environment-gates-urbancode-deploy/
https://developer.ibm.com/urbancode/products/urbancode-deploy/whats-new/6-1-0-1/

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NO.1 Which of the following statements is FALSE about Optim Edit Utility?
A. If AUTOCOMMIT is on, changes are committed to the database when the ENTER key is used.
B. "Undo" line command removes all changes made to the current row in the fetch set.
C. If data are refetched, you CANNOT undo changes to the previous fetch set.
D. "Undo All" primary command removes all changes made to all the rows in the current fetch set.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following file formats is NOT supported by the Browse Utility?
A. Extract File
B. Control File
C. Sequential File
D. Compare File
Answer: C

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NO.3 What controls whether one or more columns is excluded from processing during a Compare?
A. Table Map
B. Access Definition
C. Column Map
D. Primary Key
Answer: C

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NO.4 What statement is TRUE about Optim Data Growth solution?
A. ARCHIVE offers Direct or Offline Delete processing when data deletion is deferred.
B. The ARC and ACT commands are available for Access Definitions used in both Archive Process and Extract Process.
C. During Delete Process, a row is deleted even if the table has a Delete Restrict relationship to another table that still contains rows.
D. Group selection processing is available for Archive Processes.
Answer: A

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