2016年12月11日星期日

Microsoft 74-409 Exam Questions & 70-743 Practice Exam

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Exam Code: 70-743
Exam Name: Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA: Windows Server 2016
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70-743 Certification Training Total Q&A: 67 Questions and Answers
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Exam Code: 74-409
Exam Name: Server Virtualization with Windows Server Hyper-V and System Center
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74-409 Cram Total Q&A: 99 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 12-11,2016
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NO.1 You have a Nano Server named Nano1. Which cmdlet should you use to identify whether the DNS Server role is installed on Nano1?
A. Find-Package
B. Get-Windows Optional Feature
C. Get-Package
D. Find-NanoServerPackage
Answer: C

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NO.2 You need to create highly available storage spaces that connect to directly attached storage on the hosts Which cmdlet should you use?
A. Add-Cluster Disk
B. Set-Storage Pool
C. Update-Cluster Virtual Machine Configuration
D. Enable-Cluster Storage Spaces Dired
Answer: D

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NO.3 HOTSPOT
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016 Server1 has the Web Application Proxy role service installed
You publish an application named App1 by using the Web Application Proxy. You need to change the URL that users use to connect to App1 when they work remotely. Which command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area
Answer:

NO.4 HOTSPOT You have a machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2016 VM1 is a Remote Desktop Services (RDS) server. You need to ensure that only TCP port 3389 can be used to connect to VM1 over the network. Which command should you run on the Hyper-V host? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Answer:

NO.1 DRAG DROP
A software company has a Windows Server 2012 R2 server that has the Hyper-V role installed. The server hosts a single virtual machine (VM) named VM1. VM1 has one virtual CPU, one virtual hard
disk, and one virtual network interface card (NIC) that is attached to an external network. The company prepares to test its software in VM1. Before testing begins, VM1 must meet the following requirements:
- Availability of network bandwidth must be maximized.
- VM network connectivity must be fault tolerant. You need to configure the environment. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Answer:

NO.2 A company consolidates multiple data centers into a single centralized datacenter by using a Windows Server 2012 R2 server that has the Hyper-V role installed. You must be able to support chargeback based on the usage of the following resources: average CPU usage per virtual machine (VM) average physical memory used by a VM over a period of time highest amount of memory assigned to a VM over a period of time highest amount of disk spaced assigned to a VM over a period of time You need to track the resources without installing any additional tools. Which tool should you use?
A. Process Explorer
B. Resource Metering C Reliability Monitor
C. 10. A company has two offices in New York and one office in San Francisco. There is no shared storage between the San Francisco office and the New York headquarters. AH offices are connected
by a wide area network (WAN). The Hyper-V environment is configured as shown in the following table:
All virtual machines must be highly available.
You need to configure the environment. What should you implement?
A. a separate Hyper-V replica between NYC-Host1 and SFC-Host1
B. a Hyper-V cluster that includes NYC-Host1, NYC-Host2, and SFC-Host1
C. a Hyper-V cluster between NYC-Host1 and SFC-Host1
D. a Hyper-V replica between NYC-Host1 and NYC-Host2 with an extended replica between NYC-Host1 and SFC-Host1
D. Resource Monitor
Answer: B

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NO.3 You administer a Windows Server 2012 R2 server that has the Hyper-V role installed. You plan to test an update to a virtual machine (VM) in a production environment. You must meet the
following requirements:
--migrate the VM to another Hyper-V host as quickly as possible ensure that the VM configuration is preserved after the migration is complete You need to migrate the virtual machine. What should you do first?
A. Export the VM.
B. Run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet New-VirtualDiskClone.
C. Run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet Export-VMSnapshot.
D. Create a checkpoint of the VM.
Answer: A

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NO.4 You administer a Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI). The environment runs on a Windows Server 2012 R2 server that has the Hyper-V role installed. You use Systems Center 2012 R2 Operations Manager to troubleshoot performance issues. Some users of dedicated virtual desktops report slow response times within their sessions.
Operations Manager reports indicate that a performance bottleneck exists at the storage layer. You need to manage the amount of input/output operations per second (IOPS) that the dedicated
desktop pool can generate. What should you do?
A. Configure Operations Manager to monitor virtual machine disk performance on the Hyper-V host server. Configure monitoring alerts for virtual machine use greater than the allowed IOPS.
B. Enable Resource Metering on the Hyper-V host server.
C. For each virtual machine, enable Network Quality of Service (QoS). Set a minimum and max mum value for the Mbps property.
D. For each virtual machine, enable Storage Quality of Service (QoS). Set a minimum and maximum value for IOPS.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 700-270
Exam Name: NGFW Express for Account Managers (NGFWEAM)
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Exam Code: 642-035
Exam Name: Troubleshooting Cisco Data Center Unified Computing
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642-035 Answers Total Q&A: 168 Questions and Answers
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700-270 dates 
NO.1 Which two guidelines are important when showing proof of value using Cisco dCloud? (Choose two.)
A. Ensure that the correct software versions are installed on demonstration equipment.
B. Ensure that the customer has Cisco SIO cloud access.
C. Have demonstration screens open and prepopulated with data
D. Install FireSIGHT Management Center on a demonstration workstation
E. Prepare primary customer takeaways
Answer: C,E

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NO.2 NGIPS rulesets are configured using which management application?
A. Cisco IDM
B. Cisco ASDM
C. Cisco IME
D. FireSIGHT Management Center
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which two options are objectives that are defined as part of the "before" stage of the attack continuum? {Choose two.)
A. retrospection
B. enforce
C. detect
D.  harden
E. shun
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 Which FirePOWER services feature is associated with FireSIGHT recommendations that may be automatically applied as policy?
A. URL filtering
B. IPS
C. AVC
D. AMP
Answer: D

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642-035 solutions 
NO.1 On a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switch, which two options are valid traffic sources that can be monitored, when configuring a SPAN session for a port channel?
A. ingress, egress, and the SAN port channel
B. ingress and egress only
C. egress and the SAN port channel only
D. ingress and the SAN port channel only
Answer: D

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NO.2
Which CLI command identifies the service profile that is associated with a particular compute blade, VIF, vNIC type, link state, and pinned interface?
A. show service-profile path server 1/2
B. show server-blade circuit server 1/2
C. show service-profile circuit server 1/2
D. show server-blade path server 1/2
Answer: C

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NO.3
What is the correct procedure to change Ethernet switching modes?
A. Navigate to either Fabric Interconnect in the GUI, choose "Set Ethernet Switching mode", and wait while both FIs reboot simultaneously.
B. Navigate to either Fabric Interconnect in the GUI and transparently update the mode to switching. Repeat on the other Fabric Interconnect.
C. Navigate to the subordinate Fabric Interconnect in the GUI, choose "Set Ethernet Switching mode", wait for it to come back up, and repeat on the primary FI.
D. Simply start using the switching features. The Fabric Interconnect automatically reconfigures to use Ethernet Switching Mode.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Refer to the exhibit. Which interface is configured as a management interface for the Cisco UCS chassis?
A. eth0
B. vlan4047
C. eth1
D. eth2
Answer: A

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Exam Code: E_HANAINS151
Exam Name: SAP Certified Technology Specialist -SAP HANA Installation (Edition 2015)
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E_HANAINS151 pass guaranteed Total Q&A: 150 Questions and Answers
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Exam Code: P-ADMSEC-731
Exam Name: SAP Certified Technology Professional - System Security with SAP NetWeaver 7.31
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P-ADMSEC-731 Exam PDF Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 12-11,2016
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NO.1 Which installation parameters must be specified explicitly in batch mode (No default values available)?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Datapath
B. SID
C. Passwords
D. Sapmnt
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 The SAP ERP Human Capital Management system stores all employee master data in infotype records. What can you use to process infotype records ?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Personnel actions
B. Fast entry
C. Initial entry maintenance
D. Single screen maintenance
E. Overview entry
Answer: A,B,D

NO.3
How can you specify the update site in the SAP HANA studio?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question
A. From the main menu, choose Window Preferences Install/Update Software Sites
B. From the main menu, choose Window=> Preferences=> Install/Update=> Available Software Sites
C. Choose Add... and specify the name of the update repository (optional) and its location
D. From the main menu, choose Window=> Preferences => Install/Update => Monitoring
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 What is the term associated with-Technically a migration to SAP HANA is only a change of the database that does not affect most of the other components in the landscape?
Note: Choose the correct answer
A. Primary Persistence
B. SAP NetWeaver AS ABAP
C. Migration to SAP HANA
D. SAP HANA Accelerators
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which of the following SAP System Communication paths can be protected by SNC (Secure Network Communication)? Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. AS ABAP -> AS Java.
B. AS ABAP -> LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) enabled directory server.
C. External program -> AS ABAP.
D. AS Java -> Web Server.
E. AS Java -> AS ABAP.
Answer: A,C,E

NO.2 Which of the following methods allows you to establish a secure connection between the Software Deployment Manager (SDM) and its remote GUI?
A. HTTPS tunneling.
B. Secure Socket Layer (SSL).
C. IPSec.
D. Virtual private network (VPN).
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following statements regarding transport of roles are true? Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. You can read roles from other systems using RFC.
B. SAP recommends transporting roles via downloads and uploads.
C. To check if roles were changed, you can use table: TMSTCRI during transports.
D. Roles can be compared across systems using the user information system (SUIM).
E. Roles can only be transported if the quality assurance approval procedure is active.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.4 Which of the following statements regarding business roles and technical roles in the SAP NetWeaver Identity Management are true?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Business roles are known in the identity store as well as in the connected backend systems.
B. Roles can be set up in hierarchies in the identity store.
C. Technical roles are known in the identity store as well as in the connected backend systems.
D. Business roles are system specific and will be uploaded from the backend systems.
E. Business roles can represent the business task of an employee.
Answer: C,E


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Juniper JN0-346 exam training & JN0-346 vce exam

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Exam Code: JN0-346
Exam Name: Enterprise Routing and Switching, Specialist (JNCIS-ENT)
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Last Update: 12-11,2016
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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button. Referring to the exhibit, which type of route is displayed?
A. martian
B. aggregate
C. generate
D. static
Answer: B
Explanation: From the exhibit we see: 109.0.0.0/8 *[Aggegate/130]

NO.2 You configured a GRE tunnel that traverses a path using default MTU settings. You want to ensure that packets are not dropped or fragmented. In this scenario, what is the maximum packet size that would traverse the GRE tunnel?
A. 1400
B. 1524
C. 1476
D. 1500
Answer: C

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Explanation: The default Ethernet MTU is 1500. There is a 24 byte GRE overhead, so there remain 1476 bytes for the data packet.
References: https://kb.juniper.net/InfoCenter/index?page=content&id=KB7848&actp=search

NO.3 What is reviewed first in the BGP route selection process?
A. the path with no MED value
B. the route with an origin of incomplete
C. the peer with the lowest IP address
D. the next-hop resolution
Answer: D

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Explanation: Understanding BGP Path Selection The algorithm for determining the active route is as follows: Etc.
References:https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos12.3/topics/reference/general/routing-ptotocols-address-representation.html

NO.4 Which two statements are correct regarding the root bridge election process when using STP? (Choose two.)
A. A higher bridge priority is preferred.
B. A lower bridge priority is preferred.
C. A lower system MAC address is preferred.
D. A higher system MAC address is preferred.
Answer: B,C

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Explanation: The root bridge for each spanning-tree protocol (STP) instance is determined by the bridge ID. The bridge ID consists of a configurable bridge priority and the MAC address of the bridge. The bridge with the lowest bridge ID is elected as the root bridge. If the bridge priorities are equal or if the
bridge priority is not configured, the bridge with the lowest MAC address is elected the root bridge.
References:https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos15.1/topics/concept/layer-2-services-stp-guidelines-statement-bridge-priority.html