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Exam Code: C_TB1200_92
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP Business One Release 9.2
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
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Last Update: 12-11,2016

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Exam Code: E_HANAINS151
Exam Name: SAP Certified Technology Specialist -SAP HANA Installation (Edition 2015)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
E_HANAINS151 exam fee Total Q&A: 150 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 12-11,2016

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C_TB1200_92 Test
NO.1 What is the most effective strategy for an implementation consultant to utilize at the beginning of the requirements gathering workshops?
Please choose the correct answer.
Response:
A. Ask the client how they want to use the standard processes in SAP Business One.
B. Convert the client business processes into an SAP Business One configuration.
C. Ask questions that allow the client to describe their business processes.
D. Show the client the range of configuration options available in SAP Business One.
Answer: C

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NO.2 The implementation consultant is defining the chart of accounts for Green Studios. James, the C EO of Green Studios, asks what the consultant will do to reflect his customer's transactions in the chart of accounts.
Please choose the correct answer.
Response:
A. Add an accounts receivable control account to the assets drawer
B. Add all customer accounts as business partner master data.
C. Add an account for each customer in the assets drawer.
D. Add an accounts receivable control account to the cost of sales drawer.
Answer: A

NO.3 What all are the factors involved in Engagement of Implementation?
there are 2 correct answers to this question.
Response:
A. End customers
B. Agents
C. Middle Men
D. Partner organization
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 What postings are made when a delivery document is created for an item controlled by the moving average method? Please choose the correct answer.
Response:
A. A debit to the inventory account and a credit to cost of goods sold
B. A credit to revenue and a debit to cost of goods sold
C. A credit to the inventory account and a debit to cost of goods sold
D. A credit to the inventory account and a debit to the customer account
Answer: C

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E_HANAINS151 Material
NO.1 How can you distinguish a BW report from an SAP ERP HCM report?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. The BW reports include sets of characteristics and key figures.
B. The BW reports are based on the logical databases PNPCE and PCH.
C. The foundation for the BW data has to be lnfoSet Query.
D. The BW reports allow for time series comparisons.
E. BW reporting data could come from multiple systems.
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.2 Which installation parameters must be specified explicitly in batch mode (No default values available)?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Sapmnt
B. Datapath
C. Passwords
D. SID
Answer: C,D

NO.3 You can install the SAP HANA studio with one of the following methods?
Note: choose the correct answer
A. Depending on whether you are running a 32-bit installation or a 64-bit installation
B. Update of the SAP HANA studio an SAP JVM is being installed or updated
C. Use the hdbinst program at the command line
D. Eclipse configuration for password storage using the command line arguments
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which one is not an element of SAP HANA Platform?
Note: choose the correct answer
A. Supporting all type of devices
B. Integrate any data from any source
C. Text analysis and mining
D. Ready for big data scenarios
Answer: C

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Exam Name: SUSE Certified Linux Administrator 12
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NO.1 What does the command "vgcreate" do?
A. Create a new volume group for use with LVM.
B. This command does not exist.
C. Create a new virtual group for use with KVM.
D. Create a new virtual graphic device.
E. Create a new vector when printing in Postscript.
Answer: A

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NO.2 You want to use the ip command to set a new address for your network device eth0. It is a standard class C network. The broadcast address and network route should be set accordingly.
Which command is correct?
A. jp addr add 192.168.0.10/24 dev eth0brd +
B. ip addr add eth0192.168.0.10/24 eth0broadcast 192.168.255.255
C. ip address set 192.168.0.10/24 deveth0
D. jp address add 192.168.10/24 dev eth0
Answer: A

NO.3 Within less, how do you search for a string downwards from where the cursor is positioned?
A. :string
B. /string
C. ?string
D. =string
Answer: B

NO.4 You want to redirect both output and error messages of the find command to the find-output file. Which command accomplishes this task?
A. find /etc -name "*conf" > find-output 2> find-output
B. find /etc -name!'*conf" 2>&find-output
C. find /etc-name "*conf 2<&1 > find-output
D. find /etc -name "*conf > find-output 2>
Answer: A

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Exam Code: CAMS
Exam Name: Certified Anti-Money Laundering Specialists
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NO.1 A customer comes into the bank and appears to be ill-at-ease waiting in the teller line. When the customer gets to the teller, he become exceedingly nervous and asks for a large cashier's check to be cashed and disbursed to him in $100 bills. What should the teller do after completing the transaction?
A. Monitor the customer's account going forward
B. Confer with the bank' s account going forward
C. File a SAR on the customer
D. File a CTR on the customer by the end of the day
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which statement is true about banking regulatory agencies having the authority to obtain information from regulated institutions?
A. If a regulatory agency intends to prosecute a regulated institution, a warrant or subpoena must first be granted before the information can be obtained
B. The regulatory agencies may only obtain information from the regulated institution's books and records by virtue of a search warrant
C. A search warrant may be substituted by a court subpoena compelling the institution to produce the information to the regulatory agency
D. The agencies authority to conduct examinations negates the need for a warrant or subpoena
Answer: D

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NO.3 Federal law requires all U.S. financial institutions to secure and maintain all records and supporting documentation used m suspicious activity reporting for how many years?
A. No requirement
B. 5 years
C. 10 years
D. 2 years
Answer: B

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NO.4 The marketing department presents a business plan targeting individuals holding important public positions. What are some steps the financial institution should implement as part of the plan
to target such individuals?
A. Determine the purpose of the account
B. Determine if the client appears on the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision's list of public officials
C. Take all reasonable steps to check the background of the individual based on public information
D. Investigate the source of funds
Answer: A,C,D

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Exam Code: AWS-Solutions-Associate
Exam Name: AWS Certified Solutions Architect - Associate
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
AWS-Solutions-Associate Answers Real Questions Total Q&A: 431 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 12-11,2016

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NO.1 While creating the snapshots using the API, which Action should I be using?
A. CreateSnapshot
B. DeploySnapshot
C. FreshSnapshot
D. MakeSnapShot
Answer: A

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NO.2 You have deployed a three-tier web application in a VPC with a CIOR block of 10 0 0 0/28 You initially deploy two web servers, two application servers, two database servers and one NAT instance
tor a total of seven EC2 instances The web. Application and database servers are deployed across two availability zones (AZs). You also deploy an ELB in front of the two web servers, and use Route53 for
DNS Web (raffle gradually increases in the first few days following the deployment, so you attempt to double the number of instances in each tier of the application to handle the new load unfortunately
some of these new instances fail to launch. Which of the following could De the root caused? (Choose 2 answers)
A. AWS reserves the first and the last private IP address in each subnet's CIDR block so you do not have enough addresses left to launch all of the new EC2 instances.
B. The ELB has scaled-up. Adding more instances to handle the traffic reducing the number of available private IP addresses for new instance launches.
C. AWS reserves one IP address In each subnet's CIDR block for Route53 so you do not have enough addresses left to launch all of the new EC2 instances.
D. The Internet Gateway (IGW) of your VPC has scaled-up adding more instances to handle the traffic spike, reducing the number of available private IP addresses for new instance launches.
E. AWS reserves the first tour and the last IP address in each subnet's CIDR block so you do not have enough addresses left to launch all of the new EC2 instances.
Answer: B,E

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NO.3 Which services allow the customer to retain full administrative privileges of the underlying EC2 instances? Choose 2 answers
A. Amazon DynamoDB
B. Amazon Elastic Map Reduce
C. AWS Elastic Beanstalk
D. Amazon ElastiCache
E. Amazon Relational Database Service
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 What is the type of monitoring data (for Amazon EBS volumes) which is available automatically in 5-minute periods at no charge called?
A. Detailed
B. Basic
C. Primary
D. Local
Answer: B

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Exam Code: P2020-795
Exam Name: IBM Decision Optimization Technical Mastery Test v2
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Last Update: 12-11,2016

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NO.1 A technical seller can identify an IBM Decision Optimization Center (DOC) opportunity versus an IBM CPLEX opportunity when the customer's:
A. Business users want the ability to run what-if analysis and scenario comparisons.
B. OR team wishes to link the engine to IBM SPSS Modeler.
C. IT team is interested in embedding the engine into a proprietary application.
D. OR team has an existing OPL model and would like to solve it on a single desktop
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer wants to deploy an optimization based solution in a scalable and high availability (HA) deployment environment that provides failover and load balancing capabilities. Which
application server can be used for deploying Decision Optimization Center server components to provide an HA environment?
A. WebSphere Application Server Community Edition
B. WebSphere Application Server
C. Oracle WebLogic Server
D. WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment
Answer: B

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NO.3 A technical seller conducts a discovery workshop with a client. What is important to know when assessing the business use cases of the client?
A. Compare the current to the desired situation and determine relevant key performance indicators.
B. Evaluate the complexity of the optimization model and estimate key performance indicators.
C. Get a deep understanding of the desired situation and the client's total revenue.
D. Evaluate the complexity of the optimization model and determine the client s total revenue
Answer: A

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NO.4 A manufacturing client has asked for a Proof of Concept on production scheduling. What is the first thing the technical seller will need to work on?
A. Start working on a first version of the mathematical model to better assess the complexity.
B. Determine the components that need to be licensed and their sizing.
C. Find out when all required data will be available.
D. Ensure that there is a clear agreement on objectives, expected outcomes and the responsibilities of each party.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 300-209
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Secure Mobility Solutions
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Exam Code: 300-208
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Secure Access Solutions
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NO.1 Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the given configuration are true? (Choose two.)
A. PSK will not work as configured
B. It can be used in a DMVPN deployment
C. Defined PSK can be used by any IPSec peer.
D. It is an AnyConnect ISAKMP policy.
E. It is a LAN-to-LAN VPN ISAKMP policy.
F. Any router defined in group 2 will be allowed to connect.
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 A user with IP address 10.10.10.10 is unable to access a HTTP website at IP address 209.165.200.225 through a Cisco ASA. Which two features and commands will help troubleshoot the issue? (Choose two.)
A. Capture user traffic using command capture capin interface inside match ip host 10.10.10.10 any
B. After verifying that user traffic reaches the firewall using syslogs or captures, use packet tracer command packet-tracer input inside tcp 10.10.10.10 1234 209.165.200.225 80
C. Check if an access-list on the firewall is blocking the user by using command show running-config access-list | include 10.10.10.10
D. Enable logging at level 1 and check the syslogs using commands logging enable, logging buffered 1 and show logging | include 10.10.10.10
E. Use packet tracer command packet-tracer input inside udp 0.10.10.10 1234192.168.1.3 161 to see what the firewall is doing with the user's traffic
Answer: A,B

NO.3 After completing a site-to-site VPN setup between two routers, application performance over the tunnel is slow. You issue the show crypto ipsec sa command and see the following output. What
does this output suggest? interfacE. Tunnel100 Crypto map tag: Tunnel100-head-0, local addr 10.10.10.10 protected vrF. (none) local ident (addr/mask/prot/port): (10.10.10.10/255.255.255.255/47/0) remote
ident (addr/mask/prot/port): (10.20.20.20/255.255.255.255/47/0) current_peer 209.165.200.230 port 500 PERMIT, flags={origin_is_acl,} #pkts encaps: 34836, #pkts encrypt: 34836, #pkts digest:34836 #pkts decaps: 26922, #pkts decrypt: 19211, #pkts verify: 19211 #pkts compresseD. 0, #pkts decompresseD. 0 #pkts not compresseD. 0, #pkts compr. faileD. 0 #pkts not decompresseD. 0, #pkts decompress faileD. 0 #send errors 0, #recv errors 0
A. There is an asymmetric routing issue.
B. The VPN has established and is functioning normally.
C. Packet corruption is occurring on the path between the two peers.
D. The remote peer is not receiving encrypted traffic.
E. The remote peer is not able to decrypt traffic.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which protocol does DTLS use for its transport?
A. IMAP
B. DDE
C. UDP
D. TCP
Answer: C

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NO.1 With which two appliance-based products can Cisco Prime Infrastructure integrate to perform centralized management? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco ISE
B. Cisco Content Security Appliance
C. Cisco Email Security Appliance
D. Cisco Wireless Location Appliance
E. Cisco Managed Services Engine
Answer: A,E

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NO.2 Which two switchport commands enable MAB and allow non-802.1X capable devices to immediately run through the MAB process? (Choose two.)
A. authentication order dot1x mab
B. no authentication timer
C. authentication open
D. dot1x timeout tx-period
E. mab
F. authentication order mab dot1x
Answer: E,F

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NO.3 Which operating system type needs access to the Internet to download the application that is required for BYOD on-boarding?
A. Windows
B. OSX
C. iOS
D. Android
Answer: D

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NO.4 In the command 'aaa authentication default group tacacs local', how is the word 'default' defined?
A. Method list
B. Command set
C. Login type
D. Group name
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C-TB1200-92
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP Business One Release 9.2
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
C-TB1200-92 free learning cram Total Q&A: 155 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 12-11,2016

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Exam Code: C-C4C10-2015
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Consultant - SAP Cloud for Customer
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C-C4C10-2015 Online Test Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 12-11,2016

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C-TB1200-92 regualer
NO.1 Tiny Toys reports the financial statement to the company headquarters once a year. They manage internal controlling at the end of each quarter. How would you recommend they set the posting periods in SAP Business One? Please choose the correct answer.
Response:
A. Define the main posting period as the quarter and the sub-periods as months.
B. Define the main posting period as the fiscal year and the sub-periods as quarters.
C. Set the fiscal year to quarters and define the sub-periods as days.
D. Define the main posting period as quarters with no sub-periods.
Answer: B

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NO.2 You have created an item that is managed by serial numbers with a management method of release only. Which of the following documents will require that serial numbers are specified? Please choose the correct answer.
Choose one:
A. Delivery
B. A/P Invoice
C. Sales Order
D. Goods Receipt PO
Answer: A

NO.3 Identify the effects of A/P Invoice in the system
choose the correct answer
Response:
A. Creates matrix.
B. Creates a journal entry to update the vendor's balance to show the amount due.
C. Creates outgoing payment
D. Creates lists of pending items
Answer: B

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NO.4 You create a query for an approval process to check for service purchase orders over 3000 in value. When you test the approval process you get an error from the query. What is wrong with this query? SELEC T distinct 'true' FROM OPOR T0 WHERE $[3.0.0] = 'S' AND $[29.0.number] > 3000 Please choose the correct answer.
Response:
A. You need to add the table name OPOR to the condition to reference the fields.
B. The service type 'S' is not part of the purchase order table therefore you need to refer to it using the table and field name.
C. To refer to a field in the active window, an additional '$' character is required before the index values.
D. You should not use the 'distinct true' clause in this type of query since only a single value is returned.
Answer: C

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C-C4C10-2015 VCE
NO.1 In a condition, you can select a compare operator and compare with which of the following? There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. A Device
B. A value
C. A Domain
D. A field
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 How do you provide user access to reports?
There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Assign reports to business users.
B. Assign reports to dashboards.
C. Assign reports to employees.
D. Assign reports to work center views.
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 Which of the following point is not a step of modifying page layout and assign to business role? Please choose the correct answer
A. Open the account discovery wheels
B. Log on as an administrator
C. Assign page layout
D. Highlight layout types
Answer: D

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NO.4 Copy of Source System is recommended for which of the following use?
Please choose the correct answer.
A. None of the above
B. For requesting production tenants
C. Both a and b
D. For data migration testing when initial test tenant cannot be used
Answer: D

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Exam Code: C_TBW55_73
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - Modeling and Data Management with SAP BW 7.3 AND SAP BI 4.0
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Exam Code: C_THR12_67
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP HCM with ERP 6.0 EHP7
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C_THR12_67 Sheets Total Q&A: 245 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 12-11,2016

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NO.1 What does SAP recommend you do to improve the overall reporting performance of a standard InfoCube in SAP BW? There are 3 correct answers to this question. Choose:
A. Create one or more line-item dimensions.
B. Execute a pre-load OLAP cache process in a process chain.
C. Include the InfoCube into a semantically partitioned object (SPO).
D. Create aggregates.
E. Split the standard InfoCube data into several InfoCubes contained in a MultiProvider
Answer: A,C,D

NO.2 Which assignment can you make in the User Security section of a report object? There are 2 correct answers to this question. Choose:
A. Folder-level security for the object
B. Group-level access and rights to the object
C. Rights to an access level
D. User-level access and rights to the object
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 Which InfoProvider allows you to access data in an SAP ERP system directly? Please choose the correct answer. Choose one:
A. TransientProvider
B. Basic InfoCube
C. BW InfoSet
D. Semantic Partitioned Object
Answer: A

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NO.4 You want to show attribute data for a characteristic that is valid on the 1st of the current month. How do you model this?
Please choose the correct answer. Choose one:
A. Model the master data by adding it as a characteristic in the dimension.
B. Model the master data as a time-dependent navigation attribute of the characteristic.
C. Model the calendar day in the time dimension.
D. Model the master data by adding a time-dependent navigation attribute.
Answer: B

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NO.1 You need to create a basic organizational structure for testing purposes. Which interfaces would allow you to create one quickly while displaying it graphically? (Choose two)
A. PP01 (General - Maintain Object)
B. PPSC (Create General Structure)
C. PO10 (Maintain Organizational Unit)
D. PPOM_OLD (Simple Maintenance)
E. PPME (Change Matrix Organization)
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 A customer wants to improve data accuracy by assigning values in Organizational Management (OM) that default into Personnel Administration (PA). Which of the following values can be imported from OM into PA? (Choose three)
A. Cost Center on IT0001 (Organizational Assignment)
B. Planned Compensation on IT0008 (Basic Pay)
C. Work Schedule Rule on IT0007 (Planned Working Time)
D. Weekly Working Hours on IT0007 (Planned Working Time)
E. Employee Subgroup on IT0001 (Organizational Assignment)
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.3 Which of the following functions of the Employee Subgroup Grouping for Personnel Calculation Rules?
A. Determines permissible time quota types
B. Determines the valid pay scale group and level
C. Determines the correct processing steps in payroll
D. Determines permissible wage types
Answer: C

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NO.4 A US company wants specific field characteristics (optional, required, hidden) to be different for some areas of the organization. How can you achieve this? Please choose the correct answer.
Response:
A. Configure multiple header definition settings for use on the Header Structure per Infotype table.
B. Maintain the ADDRS feature to determine screen control for foreign addresses.
C. Set up an Infotype menu for fast data entry.
D. Adjust the screen modifications in the Infotype Screen Control table.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 1D0-635
Exam Name: CIW JavaScript Specialist
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NO.1 Which statement is true about the getElementByID() method?
A. If a match is not found for the specified ID, it will attempt searching by name.
B. It returns an array containing all elements with the specified ID.
C. It returns only the first element with the specified ID.
D. If a match is not found for the specified ID, it will attempt searching by tag name.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following is a valid variable name in JavaScript?
A. 2that
B. this
C. 2this
D. that
Answer: D

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NO.3 Consider only the following code: Which of the following would properly supply the sum of the two numbers?
A. return sum;
B. return sum(num1+num2);
C. mySum (num1+num2);
D. return num1+num2;
Answer: D

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NO.4 Consider the following statement:
for (X; Y; Z) What does Z represent in this code?
A. The loop counter update expression
B. The condition under which the loop will execute
C. The counter variable
D. The highest value that the counter variable may reach
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C_TAW12_740
Exam Name: SAP Certified Development Associate- ABAP with SAP NetWeaver 7.40
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Exam Code: C_TAW12_740
Exam Name: SAP Certified Development Associate- ABAP with SAP NetWeaver 7.40
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NO.1 You can use the following production planning (PP) application components for production supply in EWM
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question
Response:
A. Process order (PP-PI_POR)
B. Production order (PP-SFC)
C. Material Management (MM)
D. Logistics (LO)
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 The document header information is defined in the EWM system by a combination of what two codes? There are 2 correct answers to this question.
Response:
A. Document category
B. Schedule line category
C. Status profile
D. Item category
E. Document type
Answer: A,E

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NO.3 In delivery processing, action profiles can be assigned to which of the following? There are 2 correct answers to this question.
Response:
A. Delivery document item
B. Warehouse task
C. Delivery document header
D. Warehouse order
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 What are the two forms of counting?
Choose the correct answer(s).
Response:
A. Implicit and Explicit
B. Cycle counting and continuous
C. Internal and external
D. Direct and Indirect
Answer: A

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NO.1 What happens when an authorization check fails?
A. A type E message is displayed.
B. The program is terminated.
C. The system field SY-SUBRC is set to a value other than zero.
D. A CX_AUTH_FAILED type exception is raised.
Answer: C

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NO.2 To which of the following must you assign newly created SAP repository objects?
A. Package
B. Function group
C. Transport task
D. Transport request
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which statement ends a screen sequence and starts from the initial screen?
A. SET SCREEN 0
B. LEAVE SCREEN
C. LEAVE TO SCREEN 0
D. CALL SCREEN
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 You want to translate text in a Web Dynpro. From which should you inherit?
A. CL WD CONTEXT SERVICES
B. CL_WD_COMPONENT_ASSISTANCE
C. CL_WD_COMPONENT_SERVICES
D. CL_WD_CONFIGURATION_MODEL
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 300-320
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures
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Exam Code: 200-105
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
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NO.1 Which technology is an example of the need for a designer to clearly define features and desired performance when designing advanced WAN services with a service provider?
A. FHRP to remote branches
B. Layer 3 MPLS VPNs secure routing
C. Control protocols (for example Spanning Tree Protocol) for a Layer 3 MPLS service
D. Intrusion prevention, QoS, and stateful firewall support network wide
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which option is an advanced WAN services design consideration for a multipoint architecture that connects two or more customer devices using Ethernet bridging techniques over an MPLS network?
A. SONET/SDH
B. VPLS
C. MPLS
D. Metro Ethernet
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which technology can block interfaces and provide a loop-free topology?
A. STP
B. VSS
C. vPC
D. VLAN
Answer: C

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NO.4 What are two of Cisco's best practices at the access layer to ensure rapid link transitions and VLAN consistency? (Choose two.)
A. Utilize VTP in transparent mode
B. Portfast applied on distribution uplinks
C. Utilize VTP in server/client mode
D. Deploy MSTP
E. Deploy RPVST
F. VLANs span entire network
Answer: A,E

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200-105 result
NO.1 Refer to the exhibit.
Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?
A. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
B. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.
C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D. It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_tech_note09186a008009482f.shtml When a switch receives a BPDU, it first compares priority, the lower number wins. If a tie, compare MAC, the smaller one wins. Here Switch has 32769 priority which is greater than 20481 so switch will not elect for root bridge. It says the bridge priority for Switch is 32769, and the root priority is 20481.
Which means that some other switch has the lower priority and won the election for VLAN 1.

NO.2 In GLBP, which router will respond to client ARP requests?
A. The active virtual gateway will reply with one of four possible virtual MAC addresses.
B. All GLBP member routers will reply in round-robin fashion.
C. The active virtual gateway will reply with its own hardware MAC address.
D. The GLBP member routers will reply with one of four possible burned in hardware addresses.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
GLBP Virtual MAC Address Assignment A GLBP group allows up to four virtual MAC addresses per group.The AVG is responsible for assigning the virtual MAC addresses to each member of the group. Other group members request a virtual MAC address after they discover the AVG through hello messages. Gateways are assigned the next MAC address in sequence. A virtual forwarder that is assigned a virtual MAC address by the AVG is known as a primary virtual forwarder.Other members of the GLBP group learn the virtual MAC addresses from hello messages.
A virtual forwarder that has learned the virtual MAC address is referred to as a secondary virtual forwarder.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_2t/12_2t15/feature/guide/ft_glbp.html

NO.3 Refer to the exhibit.
How will the router handle a packet destined for 192.0.2.156?
A. The router will forward the packet via either Serial0 or Serial1.
B. The router will return the packet to its source.
C. The router will forward the packet via Serial2.
D. The router will drop the packet.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Router has pointed default router to 192.168.4.1 and this subnet is connected via serial 2 interface. Router does not have router for the 192.0.2.156. so it will use the default gateway 192.168.4.1. A default route identifies the gateway IP address to which the router sends all IP packets for which it does not have a learned or static route.

NO.4 Refer to the exhibit.A network associate has configured OSPF with the command:City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF. Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? (Choose three.)
A. Serial0/1.104
B. Serial0/1.103
C. FastEthernet0 /1
D. FastEthernet0 /0
E. Serial0/0
F. Serial0/1.102
Answer: C,E,F

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Explanation:
The "network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 equals to network 192.168.12.64/26. This network has:Increment: 64 (/26= 1111 1111.1111 1111.1111 1111.1100 0000)Network address:
192.168.12.64 Broadcast address: 192.168.12.127Therefore all interface in the range of this network will join OSPF - B C D are correct.

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Exam Code: CEH-001
Exam Name: Certified Ethical Hacker (CEH)
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NO.1 Which type of antenna is used in wireless communication?
A. Uni-directional
B. Bi-directional
C. Omnidirectional
D. Parabolic
Answer: C

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NO.2 Keystroke logging is the action of tracking (or logging) the keys struck on a keyboard, typicall in a covert manner so that the person using the keyboard is unaware that their actions are being monitored. How will you defend against hardware keyloggers when using public computers and Internet Kiosks? (Select 4 answers)
A. Alternate between typing the login credentials and typing characters somewhere else in the focus window
B. The next key typed replaces selected text portion. g. if the password is "secret", one could type "s", then some dummy keys "asdfsd". Then these dummies could be selected with mouse, and next character from the password "e" is typed, which replaces the dummies "asdfsd"
C. The next key typed replaces selected text portion. E.g. if the password is "secret", one could type "s", then some dummy keys "asdfsd". Then these dummies could be selected with mouse, and next character from the password "e" is typed, which replaces the dummies "asdfsd"
D. Type a wrong password first, later type the correct password on the login page defeating the keylogger recording
E. Type a password beginning with the last letter and then using the mouse to move the cursor for each subsequent letter.
Answer: A,B,C,E

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NO.3 Information gathered from social networking websites such as Facebook, Twitter and LinkedIn can be used to launch which of the following types of attacks? (Choose two.)
A. Fraggle attack
B. SQL injection attack
C. Social engineering attack
D. Distributed denial of service attack
E. Phishing attack
F. Smurf attack
Answer: C,E

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NO.4 Rebecca is a security analyst and knows of a local root exploit that has the ability to enable local users to use available exploits to gain root privileges. This vulnerability exploits a condition in the Linux kernel within the execve() system call. There is no known workaround that exists for this vulnerability. What is the correct action to be taken by Rebecca in this situation as a recommendation to management?
A. Rebecca should make a recommendation to upgrade the Linux kernel promptly
B. Rebecca should make a recommendation to hire more system administrators to monitor all child
processes to ensure that each child process can't elevate privilege
C. Rebecca should make a recommendation to disable the () system call
D. Rebecca should make a recommendation to set all child-process to sleep within the execve()
Answer: A

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Exam Name: Oracle Global Human Resources Cloud 2016 Implementation Essentials
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NO.1 You are implementing the Checklist functionality for one of your customers. The customer wants the checklist template to be allocated to persons automatically. What should you do to achieve the required functionality?
A. Associate a life event with the checklist template to allocate the checklist to persons automatically when they experience the event.
B. Associate the area of responsibility with the checklist template to allocate the checklist to persons automatically when they are given the specific area of responsibility.
C. Managers can automatically allocate checklist templates to the persons whom they manage from Person Gallery
D. Associate the action with the checklist template to allocate the checklist to persons automatically when they experience the action.
E. Associate the eligibility profile with the checklist template to allocate the checklist to persons automatically when they satisfy the criteria built in the eligibility profile.
Answer: D

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NO.2 An organization wants to include a security profile in an HCM data role and then provision the data role to a user. Identify the option which lists the HCM object types for which the security profiles can be created.
A. Person, Organization, Position, Legislative Data Group, Country, Document Type. Payroll, Payroll Flow, Workforce Business Process
B. Person, Organization, Position, Legislative Data Group, Location, Grade, Document Type, Payroll, Payroll Flow, Workforce Business Process
C. Person, Organization, Position. Legislative Data Group, Country, Grade, Document Type. Payroll, Payroll Flow, Workforce Business Process
D. Person, Organization, Position. Legislative Data Group, Location. Grade. Document Type, Payroll. Payroll Flow
Answer: A

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NO.3 As an implementation consultant, you are in the process of building the Enterprise Structure. At the minimum, what are the three options you should be aware of while defining a Business Unit in the application? (Choose three.)
A. A Business Unit performs one or many business functions that can be rolled up in a management hierarchy.
B. A Business unit can process transactions on behalf of many legal entities.
C. A Business unit can process transactions on behalf of many or a single legal entity depending on how the ESC option is set.
D. A Business Unit performs one or many business functions like Payables invoicing, Payables payments, Procurement, Sales, Marketing etc.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.4 Select three correct Workforce Structure definitions. (Choose three.)
A. Department
B. Division
C. Country
D. Location
E. Facility
F. Geography
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.1 Examine the following query:What is the output of this query?
A. It displays the first 5 percent of the rows from the SALES table.
B. It displays 5 percent of the products with the highest amount sold.
C. It displays 5 percent of the products with the lowest amount sold.
D. It results in an error because the ORDER BY clause should be the last clause.
Answer: C

NO.2 Evaluate the following SQL statements that are issued in the given order: CREATE TABLE emp (emp_no NUMBER(2) CONSTRAINT emp_emp_no_pk PRIMARY KEY, enameVARCHAR2(15), salary NUMBER(8,2),
mgr_no NUMBER(2) CONSTRAINT emp_mgr_fk REFERENCES emp);
ALTER TABLE emp DISABLE CONSTRAINT emp_emp_no_pk CASCADE;
ALTER TABLE emp ENABLE CONSTRAINT emp_emp_no_pk; What would be the status of the foreign key EMP_MGR_FK?
A. It would be automatically enabled and deferred.
B. It would be automatically enabled and immediate.
C. It would remain disabled and can be enabled only by dropping the foreign key constraint and re-creating it.
D. It would remain disabled and has to be enabled manually using the ALTER TABLE command.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 View the Exhibit and examine the structure of ORDERS and ORDER_ITEMS tables. ORDER__ID is the primary key in the ORDERS table. It is also the foreign key in the ORDER_ITEMS table wherein it is created with the ON DELETE CASCADE option.Which DELETE statement would execute successfully?
A. DELETE order_id FROM orders WHERE order_total < 1000;
B. DELETE orders o, order_items i WHERE o.order id = i.order id;
C. DELETE orders WHERE order_total < 1000;
D. DELETE FROM orders WHERE (SELECT order_id FROM order_items);
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which two statements are true regarding constraints? (Choose two.)
A. All the constraints can be defined at the column level as well as the table level
B. A foreign key cannot contain NULL values.
C. A constraint is enforced only for the INSERT operation on a table.
D. A constraint can be disabled even if the constraint column contains data.
E. A column with the UNIQUE constraint can contain NULL.
Answer: D,E

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Exam Name: Rational UrbanCode Deploy
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C5050-062 relevant questions Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 12-11,2016

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Exam Code: P2090-070
Exam Name: IBM Information Management Optim z/OS Technical Mastery v1
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P2090-070 Review Total Q&A: 40 Questions and AnswersLast Update: 12-11,2016

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NO.1 When integrating with WebLogic (WLDeploy plugin), one required field is the location of the "WLDeploy Ant Task Jar." Where can you obtain this important file that is required for integration?
A. You can download it from the WebLogic interface.
B. You can find it in the WebLogic's server directory.
C. You can build the jar file manually in the WebLogic's server/lib directory.
D. You can download it from http://oracle.com.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Basic Steps for Using wldeploy
To use the wldeploy Ant task:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E13222_01/wls/docs92/programming/wldeploy.html

NO.2 The approval process is executed when approved by which user type?
A. The user type configured for approval in the approval process being executed
B. The user type currently configured to execute the process
C. The user type of the user created both the application processes and the component processes
D. The administrator user type
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Deployment approvals are created in a process that specifies the job that needs approval and the role of the approver. When a request for approval is made, the users with the corresponding role are
notified of the work item through email. The approver has the liberty to approve or reject a deployment as well as provide comments to the decision.
References:
https://developer.ibm.com/urbancode/products/urbancode-deploy/features/quality-gates-approvals/

NO.3 What is the result of deleting an agent from the IBM UrbanCode Deploy server administration console?
A. The agent is removed from the list of available agents and deleted from the file system.
B. The agent is removed from the list of available agents but remains on the resource tree for reuse.
C. The agent is removed from the list of available agents and deleted from the resource tree.
D. The agent is removed from the resource but remains on the list of available agents for reuse.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
If you uninstall an agent from its host, you will not be able to reinstall the agent using the same name. To properly uninstall an agent, you must also delete it from the server as follows:
Click on Resources > Agents Click the Delete action for the agent you previously uninstalled
References: http://www-01.ibm.com/support/docview.wss?uid=swg21687857

NO.4 Which three statements are true about version statuses? (Select three.)
A. Version statuses must be used in conjunction with locks to identify which environments are locked for marked versions.
B. Version statuses must be used in conjunction with environment gates to govern which versions are allowed into specific environments.
C. Version statuses must be used in conjunction with tokens to mark which versions are ready for deployment.
D. Version statuses must be used in conjunction with component tags to tag which versions can be deployed.
Answer: A,B,D

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Explanation:
B: In IBM UrbanCode Deploy, Environment Gates and Version Statuses can help you define policies restricting which versions of components and applications may be deployed into certain
environments. For example, you would use Gates and Statuses to enforce a rule that anything being deployed into
Production has passed security reviews. Unlike approvals which act on a specific request, Gates establish checks on the versions of components or applications being deployed.
C: Environments can be configured to specifically lock either snapshot versions or snapshot configuration, or both, when snapshots are deployed to the environment. In addition, users can now manually lock snapshots so that they cannot be changed in the future
References:
https://developer.ibm.com/urbancode/docs/introduction-environment-gates-urbancode-deploy/
https://developer.ibm.com/urbancode/products/urbancode-deploy/whats-new/6-1-0-1/

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NO.1 Which of the following statements is FALSE about Optim Edit Utility?
A. If AUTOCOMMIT is on, changes are committed to the database when the ENTER key is used.
B. "Undo" line command removes all changes made to the current row in the fetch set.
C. If data are refetched, you CANNOT undo changes to the previous fetch set.
D. "Undo All" primary command removes all changes made to all the rows in the current fetch set.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following file formats is NOT supported by the Browse Utility?
A. Extract File
B. Control File
C. Sequential File
D. Compare File
Answer: C

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NO.3 What controls whether one or more columns is excluded from processing during a Compare?
A. Table Map
B. Access Definition
C. Column Map
D. Primary Key
Answer: C

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NO.4 What statement is TRUE about Optim Data Growth solution?
A. ARCHIVE offers Direct or Offline Delete processing when data deletion is deferred.
B. The ARC and ACT commands are available for Access Definitions used in both Archive Process and Extract Process.
C. During Delete Process, a row is deleted even if the table has a Delete Restrict relationship to another table that still contains rows.
D. Group selection processing is available for Archive Processes.
Answer: A

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